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This step is not the source of the fallacy.This
step follows from the previous step (i/2 + 3/(2i) = 1/(2i) + 3/(2i)) by
both sides by i.
If two numbers are equal, and you multiply them each by the same number,
the products will be equal as well.
Why don't you go back to the list of steps in the
proof and see if you can identify which one
is wrong, now that you know it isn't this one?
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