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This step is not the source of the fallacy.

This step follows from the previous step (i/1 = 1/i) by dividing both sides by 2.

If two numbers are equal, and you divide each of them by 2, the quotients will be equal as well.

Why don't you go back to the list of steps in the proof and see if you can identify which one is wrong, now that you know it isn't this one?
This page last updated: May 26, 1998
Original Web Site Creator / Mathematical Content Developer: Philip Spencer
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