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This step is not the source of the fallacy.This
step follows from the previous step (i/1 = 1/i) by dividing
both sides by 2.
If two numbers are equal, and you divide each of them by 2, the
quotients will be equal as well.
Why don't you go back to the list of steps in the
proof and see if you can identify which one
is wrong, now that you know it isn't this one?
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